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Methodological Contradictions and the relation between Husserl and Heidegger

In the opening paragraph of the Preface to PP, Merleau-Ponty makes the well-known claim that Heidegger is just cribbing from Husserl: “all of Sein und Zeit springs from an indication in Husserl,” as Smith translates it. But is this really what MP is saying? It seems to me a bit more complicated in the French. More in extended…

The context for the claim about Heidegger is set by the two sentences previous to it. In the first of these MP suggests an apparent contradiction in Husserl’s method. The contradiction is between the claim that phenomenology is a “direct description of our experience as it is,” and the references in the last works to “genetic” and even “constructive” phenomenology. How can we be giving a “direct description” of experience if we are tracing its genesis and even constructing it? MP doesn’t answer this question, however, but in typical Merleau-Ponty fashion asks a different one. In French the question he asks is this: “Voudra-t-on lever ces contradictions en distinguant entre la phénoménologie de Husserl et celle de Heidegger?” I propose to translate the question thus: “Ought one to raise these contradictions in distinguishing between Husserl’s phenomenology and that of Heidegger?” If this is the right way to take the French, then the passage seems to indicate that the question MP is interested in is whether or not the existence of methodological inconsistencies is the key to the distinction between Husserl and Heidegger. “Ought one to raise these contradictions in distinguishing between the two?”

It is in answer to this question that MP writes about the relation between Husserl and Heidegger. As he says, “Mais tout Sein und Zeit est sorti d’ une indication de Husserl et n’ est en somme qu’ une explication du ” natürlichen weltbegriff ” ou du ” lebenswelt ” que Husserl, à la fin de sa vie, donnait pour thème premier à la phénoménologie…” The suggestion seems to be that because Heidegger is himself interested in late Husserlian phenomena like the Lebenswelt, we are not likely to find the distinction between him and Husserl to lie in Heidegger’s method being less “genetic” and more “descriptive” than Husserl’s. In this, at least, the two philosophers are alike.

I’m not sure whether this is a good reading of the passage, but I think something in the area is at least possible. Whether this is a good reading or not, however, it is certain that the Smith translation obscures it competely. To begin with, he turns the principle question into a rhetorical statement. Instead of asking “Ought one to raise these contradictions in distinguishing…” Smith proposes the following translation: “One may try to do away with these contradictions by making a distinction between Hu and Heid…” On this version the distinction between Husserl and Heidegger is proposed in an attempt to “do away with” [lever?] the methodological contradictions. In the original version, however, the question seems to be not whether the contradictions can be excised by drawing a distinction between the two philosophers, but rather whether the distinction between the philosophers - which admittedly exists - consists primarily in the presence or absence of methodological contradictions. If that is the real context of the passage, then the claim that “the whole of Sein und Zeit springs from an indication in Husserl” - and indeed from an indication in late Husserl - shows not that Heidegger’s philosophical position is the same as Husserl’s, but that his project is every bit as much a genetic one (or perhaps Heidegger would say a hermeneutic one) as Husserl’s is. This seems to me not only a better reading of the French, but also quite possibly true.

What do you think?

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Without stepping into the philosophical waters here, I’d like to suggest three thoughts on the translation: (1) Smith’s seems totally inadequate and inaccurate. (2) You will want to decide how colloquial you want to make your translation. (For example, “Ought one to…” versus “Should one…” (I favor the more colloquial “Should one…”). (3) As a general principle and wherever possible, I like replicating in the translation the exact sequence in words and thoughts that were in the original langauage (because that sequence shows something about the thought processes, and the thoughts and feelings, of the originator and the original). This would mean, for this passage, the following: “Should one raise these contradictions in distinguishing between the phenomenology of Husserl and that of Heidegger?”

Tom - Thanks for the comments. I certainly agree with your (1) and (2) - that Smith’s translation is inaccurate and that I need to decide how colloquial to make my translation. As to the second, I’m finding that MP tends to use fairly formal phrasing, while I myself tend to write more colloquially. My challenge is to find the proper balance between these, one that does justice to both of our sensibilities. It’s funny, though, that you should give the particular example you do, since that’s already one where this issue came up for me. The French actually says, “Voudra-t-on…,” which strictly speaking is translated as “Does one want to…” instead of either “Ought one to…” or “Should one…” But “Does one want to…” sounds to me so formal in the English that I couldn’t make myself use it. I chose “Ought one to…” as the more colloquial choice. In fact, this may be too much of a compromise, since the difference between whether one “wants” to do something and whether one “ought” to do something is substantial. But I think you are right, if we’re willing to go with “ought” (and I’m not sure yet whether we should be) then the more colloquial, and pretty much synonomous, English choice is “Should one…”

As to your third point - that one should try to replicate the exact sequence of words in the translation - I think this is a very interesting principle. The question is how to balance it with the principle of readability, which I think is also important. It’s an especially pressing principle in the case of MP. That’s because one of the things that makes him difficult to read is his run-on sentence structure and his lack of paragraph breaks. (These are two versions, I think, of the same psychological principle; it may very well have to do, as you suggest elsewhere, with his working out the ideas as he writes. Nowadays we think that indicates the need for a second draft.) In any case, one reason he can write such long sentences is that he has a tendency to stick in subordinate clauses everywhere. If I were really to follow the principle of keeping the order of the words in the original it would sometimes be much harder to break up the sentences. That’s not to say I don’t like the principle: I think it’s very useful to keep in mind, and I appreciate the suggestion. And indeed, in the case that you cite it’s very easy to make the correction. But I do think there will be places where I’m torn between keeping the order of the words and producing a readable text. That’s what makes translation an art instead of a science…

hello L(

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